Research Methodology for Management Annamalai University M.B.A Question paper

M.B.A. (INFORMATION SYSTEM) DEGREE
EXAMINATION - 2011

(FIRST YEAR)

(paper – VII)

170. RESEARCH METHODS FOR MANAGEMENT

May)                                                                                                                      (Time: 3 Hours

Maximum: 75 Marks

Section-A

                                             Answer any FIVE questions.                          (5 ´ 3 = 15)

1.   What is meant by Research and its Importance?

2.   What are the characteristics of Research Methodology?

3.   Explain the scope of Research Methodology?

4.   What are the various types of Research?

5.   What is meant by Test of significance?

6.   Explain SPSS and its applications?

7.   Write short note on Report writing?

8.   What is mean by oral presentation?

Section-B

                                       Answer any THREE questions.                (3 ´ 10 = 30)

  9. Briefly explain the Research Design

10. Explain the Test of sound measurement.

11. Write short note on: a) Pilot study b)Coding c)Editing d)Case study e) Data processing.

12. Briefly explain the steps in report writing

13. Briefly explain the Analysis and Interpret of Research work.

Section-C

                                  Answer any ONE question.                (1 ´ 15 = 15)

14. Rainfall at two places A and B for 10 years are as below:

Years	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Place A	40	30	34	39	43	25	49	40	45	55
Place B	39	28	13	35	41	23	45	37	43	55

      If there significance difference in the rainfalls for two places taking data as (a) Two
      Independent samples (b) Paired up values?

15. Two horses A and B, were tested according to the time (in seconds) taken to run a particular
      tract with the following results.

Horse A:          28,       30,      32,      33,       29        and      34

Horse B :         29,        30,       30,      24,       27        and      29

    Analyses the above data and Report whether or not you can discriminate between the running
    times of two horses.

16. Briefly Explain the Norms for using Tables, charts and diagrams.

Section-D

                                  (Compulsory)               (1 ´ 15 = 15)

17. Professor Stevens is designing an experiment to determine the effect of intensity of tone on reaction time. He believes that participants will respond more quickly to more intense tones. He wishes to use five intensities of tone: 10,30,50,70, and 90 dB.

He expects there will be a practice effect such that participants will get faster over the first 20 or 50 trials. (A trial is a presentation of a single tone.) He is able to present a trial every 10 seconds. Participants will be available for 1 hour, including the time taken in introducing them to the experiment, practicing, and debriefing. He estimates that he may be able to collect data for up to 30 minutes.

He has reason to believe that reaction time might differ between the left and right hard. It is likely that people are faster with their preferred hand. About 5% of people are left- handed, but left handedness is more common in men than in women. He has no theoretical interest in differences between left and right hand, the effects of handedness or sex differences.

Professor Stevens wonders whether to use a within – subjects or between – subjects design. The within – Subject design would require him to decide which order of presenting the stimuli to the subjects would be best. If he used a between subjects design, he would not have that problem, but he would require more participants to complete the experiment.

If he uses a between – Subjects design each participant would experience only one intensity. He links that he would need at least 20 different individuals at each intensity to control for individual differences between subjects.

If he uses a within – Subjects design, he could use reverse counter balancing, a Latin Square, random order, only increasing order, or only decreasing order. He realizes that each one has certain advantages and disadvantages.

It he randomizes the order or uses Latin Square loud tones will follow soft ones, and vice versa, in an unpredictable manner. This might startle the participants, causing them to be possibly faster on the loud tones. Or slower, depending on whether the startle reaction is compatible with pressing the key on the computer. Then again, presenting the tones in a predictable sequence might make the participants “tone out” or habituate to, the effects of intensity.

He believes that he needs 100 trials per stimulus in the total experiment to obtain reliable results.

Required Decide:

a) Whether to do the experiment within or between subjects.

b) What sort of order to use, if is to be done between subjects.

c) Whether to control for hand and handedness, and if so, how

d) How many participants to use.

Justify each of your decisions, summarize your decisions by showing the total number of stimulus present acting how they are distributed across participants and in what order. (It is not necessary to list the exact order for all trials and participants – Just give the Schema).

GE2152 BCM BASIC CIVIL AND MECHANICAL ENGINEERING ANNA UNIVERSITY QUESTION PAPER PREVIOUS YEAR NOV/DEC 2009

B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER/DECEMBER 2009

Second Semester

Electronics and Communication Engineering

GE 2152 — BASIC CIVIL AND MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

(Common to Biomedical Engineering, Electrical and Electronics Engineering,

Electronics and Instrumentation Engineering, Information Technology, Computer

Science and Engineering and Instrumentation and Control Engineering)

(Regulation 2008)

Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 Marks

Answer ALL Questions

PART A — (10 × 2 = 20 Marks)

1. What is the principle of surveying?
2. Differentiate WCB from RB.
3. Define safe bearing capacity of soil.
4. What is Poisson’s ratio?
5. List the types of dams.
6. Give the classification of power plants.
7. What is the principle of centrifugal pump?
8. What is meant by two stroke cycle engine?
9. Define the term refrigeration.
10. Mention the applications of refrigeration.

PART B — (5 × 16 = 80 Marks)

11. (a) (i) Draw a neat sketch of a dumpy level and indicates its parts. (8)
(ii) Explain how reciprocal levelling is carried out in case of
obstruction. (8)
Or
(b) (i) What are the requirements of a good building stone? (5)
(ii) What is the chemical composition of cement? (5)
(iii) List the types of cement and the various tests carried out on
ordinary Portland cement. (6)
12. (a) Enumerate different types of foundations you would recommend under
different situations and soil conditions. Explain them briefly. (16)
Or
(b) Draw a typical vertical section of a wall through openings, and show
various important elements of construction. (16)
13. (a) Explain the working of a single acting single stage reciprocating pump
with a neat sketch. Name the main parts. (16)
Or
(b) Explain the construction and working of a centrifugal pump with a neat
sketch. (16)
14. (a) Describe the working of four stroke cycle petrol engine with neat
sketches. (16)
Or
(b) Compare two-stroke engine with four-stroke engine. (16)
15. (a) Explain with a line diagram the construction and working of a vapour
compression system of refrigeration. (16)
Or
(b) How are vapour refrigerators classified? Explain their operation. Mention
the names of vapours used in vapour refrigerators. (16)

GE2152 BASIC CIVIL AND MECHANICAL ENGINEERING BCM Anna University PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION PAPER FOR NOV/DEC 2010

B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER/DECEMBER 2010

Second Semester

Electrical and Electronics Engineering

GE 2152 — BASIC CIVIL AND MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

(Common to Bio-medical Engineering, Electronics & Communication Engineering,

Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering, Information Technology, Computer

Science & Engineering and Instrumentation & Control Engineering)

(Regulation 2008)

Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

PART A — (10 × 2 = 20 Marks)

1. What is meant by surveying and leveling?
2. What are the raw materials required to manufacture the cement?
3. List different types of foundation used for buildings.
4. Define plastering. List the types of plasters.
5. What is known as gravity dam?
6. Give the classification of power plants.
7. What is known as scavenging?
8. What is known as stroke in an internal combustion engine?
9. Differentiate fire tube boilers from water tube boilers.
10. Mention any four refrigerants.

PART B — (5 × 16 = 80 Marks)

11. (a) Explain the various types of surveying.
Or
(b) Discuss the qualities, classification and uses of Bricks.
12. (a) With a sketch explain the various types of foundations.
Or
(b) What are roofs? Explain a reinforced cement concrete roof.
13. (a) Draw the plan and elevation of a typical bridge and explain its
components.
Or
(b) Draw the layout of Hydro-electric power plant and explain its working
principle.
14. (a) Explain the working principle of steam power plant with neat sketch.
Or
(b) Compare the air cooling and water cooling systems in I.C. engines.
15. (a) Explain the working principle of four stroke Compression Ignition
engine.
Or
(b) Draw a neat sketch and explain the working principle of vapour
absorption refrigeration system.

GE2211 ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING EVS Anna University Question paper for Nov/Dec 2009

B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER/DECEMBER 2009

Third Semester

Electrical and Electronics Engineering

GE 2211 — ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING

(Regulation 2008)

(Common to Chemical Engineering / Textile Technology / Instrumentation and

Control Engineering / BioTechnology / Rubber and Plastics / Electronics and

Instrumentation Engineering / Polymer Technology / Textile Technology

(Fashion Technology))

Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 Marks

Answer ALL Questions

PART A — (10 × 2 = 20 Marks)

1. What are renewable and non-renewable energy sources? Give examples.
2. Mention the causes of desertification.
3. What are food chains and food webs?
4. Define primary production and secondary production.
5. What is meant by thermal pollution?
6. Mention the sources of solid wastes.
7. What is meant by sustainable development?
8. Mention the causes of ozone layer depletion.
9. What is meant by population explosion?
10. List the objectives of watershed management.

PART B — (5 × 16 = 80 Marks)

11. (a) (i) Explain the major causes and consequences of deforestation. (8)
(ii) Discuss the various techniques for harnessing solar energy. (8)
Or


(b) (i) Explain the environmental impacts of mineral extraction and use.(8)
(ii) Discuss the impact of modern agriculture on the environment. (8)
12. (a) (i) Discuss the major features of grass land ecosystem. (8)
(ii) Write a note on endangered and endemic species of India. (8)
Or
(b) (i) Describe the structural features of ecosystem. (8)
(ii) Write a note on conservation of biodiversity. (8)
13. (a) (i) Enumerate various methods for control of air pollution. (8)
(ii) Discuss the causes, effects and control of marine pollution. (8)
Or
(b) (i) Describe the sources, effects and control of noise pollution. (8)
(ii) Discuss the role of an individual in preventing pollution. (8)
14. (a) (i) Describe the measures to conserve water. (8)
(ii) Write a note on wasteland reclamation. (8)
Or
(b) (i) What is meant by acid rain? How does it form? What are the major
impacts? (8)
(ii) Discuss the causes and effects of global warming. (8)
15. (a) (i) Discuss the influence of environmental parameters on human
health. (8)
(ii) Narrate the role of information technology in environmental
management. (8)
Or
(b) (i) Discuss the various issues and measures for women and child
welfare. (8)
(ii) Explain the objectives and elements of value education. (8)

ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING GE2211 Anna University Previous Year Question Paper Nov/Dec 2010 for CSE Students

B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER/DECEMBER 2010

Third Semester

Electrical and Electronics Engineering

GE 2211 — ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING

(Common to Chemical Engineering, Textile Technology, Instrumentation and

Control Engineering, Biotechnology, Plastic Technology, Electronics and

Instrumentation Engineering, Polymer Technology and

Textile Technology (Fashion Technology))

(Regulation 2008)

Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

PART A — (10 × 2 = 20 Marks)

1. What are food chains? Mention their types.
2. What are the abiotic components of an ecosystem?
3. Give a comprehensive definition for air pollution.
4. Mention four causes of floods.
5. What are the present food problems of the world?
6. What are the effects of over utilization of ground water?
7. Define sustainable development.
8. What are the main causes of global climatic changes?
9. What is ‘Crude birth rate’ and ‘total fertility rate’?
10. Mention any four fundamental rights of the individuals.

PART B — (5 × 16 = 80 Marks)

11. (a) (i) Explain the features of ecological pyramids including inverted
pyramids. (8)
(ii) What are the threats to biodiversity? Discuss. (8)
Or
(b) (i) Explain the components, structure and functions of a desert
ecosystem. (8)
(ii) What are the values of biodiversities? Explain. (8)


12. (a) (i) Elaborate the various ways of controlling the noise pollution. (8)
(ii) Define and give two example each for gaseous air pollutant
suspended particulate matter, photochemical oxidant, and
hazardous pollutant. (8)
Or
(b) (i) Discuss the effects and control of thermal pollution. (8)
(ii) List the role of an individual in prevention of pollution. (8)
13. (a) (i) What are the ecological services rendered by forests? Discuss. (8)
(ii) Discuss the different ways of harnessing solar energy? (8)
Or
(b) (i) Discuss any four factors responsible for land degradation (8)
(ii) Discuss the problems of fertilizers and pesticides in modern
agriculture. (8)
14. (a) (i) How can we attain sustainable development? Explain. (8)
(ii) Mention the salient features of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
and Forest Conservation Act, 1986. (8)
Or
(b) (i) How can we make energy resources sustainable? Explain. (8)
(ii) What are the components of watershed management? Discuss. (8)
15. (a) (i) List the reasons for high population growth in India. (8)
(ii) Discuss the role of information technology in environment. (8)
Or
(b) (i) List various women welfare programmes of India. (8)
(ii) Discuss the variation age structure of population among nation
using Age - pyramids. (8)

TECHNICAL ENGLISH — I HS2111 anna university question paper previous year for first year first semester students

B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION, MAY/JUNE 2009.

First Semester

Civil Engineering

HS 2111 — TECHNICAL ENGLISH — I

(Common to all branches except Marine Engineering)

(Regulation 2008)

Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 marks

Answer ALL questions.

PART A — (10 × 2 = 20 marks)

1. Match the words in Column A with their meanings in Column B. (4 × 2
1 = 2)
A B
repository starting point
jeopardy confined within narrow limits
fission place where things are stored
cramped division of the atom
danger
2. Punctuate the following. (4 × 2
1 = 2)
an essay is a piece of writing several paragraphs long written
on one topic the aim of the essay should be deduced strictly
from the wording of the title or question and needs to be defined


3. Complete the following table with appropriate forms of the words given.
(8 × 4
1 = 2)
Noun Verb Adjective
—————— Prescribe ——————
Globalization —————— ——————
—————— Repeat ——————
—————— —————— economical
4. Complete the following ‘If’ conditionals with suitable effects. (4 × 2
1 = 2)
(a) If the roads of the city are widened ——————
(b) If I had not worn a helmet that day ——————
(c) If he were kinder ——————
(d) If I had a million dollars ——————
5. Give the expansions of the following compound nouns. (4 × 2
1 = 2)
(a) Mobile banking
(b) Data transfer
(c) Business Administration
(d) Communication system.
6. Rewrite the following sentences in the passive voice. (2 × 1 = 2)
(a) The library will acquire a new stock of books this month.
(b) Someone broke into the house last night and stole jewels worth Rs. One
lakh.
7. Edit the following passage. (8 × 4
1 = 2)
Making paper involve reducing a plant to its fibres, and then aligned them and
coating a fibres with materials such of glues, pigments and mineral fillers the
first steps on the process is obtaining the raw material.
8. Fill in the blanks in the given sentences with the comparative forms of the
adjectives given in brackets. (4 × 2
1 = 2)
(a) Oil is —————— (light) than water. That is why oil floats on water.
(b) The University campus was —————— (far) away from the station
than I was given to believe.
(c) The Afternoon session of the workshop was definitely ——————
(interesting) than the morning session.
(d) The weapons used in the Second World War were ——————
(destructive) than those used ever before in history.


9. Write one sentence definitions of the following. (2 × 1 = 2)
(a) Bluetooth
(b) Abacus.
10. Fill in the blanks in the given sentences with the correct form of the verb,
choosing the right option from the choices given in brackets. (4 × 2
1 = 2)
(a) A Commission —————— (was/has been) appointed to investigate the
massacre of the innocent villagers two days after the incident.
(b) This year the University —————— (introduced/has introduced) the
new online system of examination.
(c) The machine —————— (was/has been) purchased in 1973 and
—————— (is/has been) functioning for the past 35 years with the
same efficiency.
PART B — (5 × 16 = 80 marks)
11. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow it.
When the first white men arrived in Samoa, they found blind men, who could
see well enough to describe things in detail just by holding their hands over
objects. In France just after the First World War, Jules Romain tested
hundreds of blind people and found a few who could tell the difference between
light and dark. He narrowed their photosensitivity down to areas on the nose
or in the fingertips. In Italy the neurologist Cesare Lombroso discovered a
blind girl who could ‘see’ with the tip of her nose and the lobe of her left ear.
When a bright light was shone unexpectedly on her, she winced. In 1956 a
blind schoolboy in Scotland was taught to differentiate between coloured lights
and learned to pick out bright objects several feet away. In 1960 a medical
board examined a girl in Virginia and found that, even with thick bandages
over her eyes, she was able to distinguish different colours and read short
sections of large print. The phenomenon is obviously not new, but it has
reached new peaks of sensitivity in a young woman from a mountain village in
the Urals. 
Rosa Kuleshova can see with her fingers. She is not blind, but because she
grew up in a family of blind people, she learned to read Braille to help them
and then went onto teach herself to do other things with her hands. In 1962
her physician took her to Moscow, where she was examined by the Soviet
Academy of Science, and emerged a celebrity, certified as genuine. The
neurologist Shaefer made an intensive study with her and found that, securely
blindfolded with only her hands stuck through a screen, she could differentiate
among three primary colours. To test the possibility that the cards reflected
heat differently, he heated some and cooled others without affecting her
response to them, He also found that she could read newsprint and sheet music
under glass, so texture was giving her no clues. Tested by the psychologist
Novomeisky, she was able to identify the colour and shape of patches of light
projected on her palm or on to a screen. In rigidly controlled tests, with a
blindfold and a screen and a piece of card around her neck so wide that she
could not see round it, Rosa read the small print in a newspaper with her
elbow. And, in the most convincing demonstration of all, she repeated these
things with someone standing behind her pressing hard on her eyeballs.
Nobody can cheat under this pressure ; it is even difficult to see clearly for
minutes after it is released.
(a) Complete the following statements choosing from one of the given
alternatives. (4 × 1 = 4)
(i) The first white men to visit Samoa found men who
(1) were not entirely blind
(2) described things by touching them
(3) could see with their hands
(4) could see when they held hands
(ii) What is the main idea of the first paragraph?
(1) Very few people have the sensitivity of the blind
(2) Blind people can manage to see things, but only vaguely
(3) The eyes are not the only way of seeing
(4) It is possible to localise photosensitive areas of the body.
(iii) Why did Shaefer put the paper under glass?
(1) To make things as difficult as possible
(2) To stop the reflection of hear
(3) To prevent Rosa from feeling the print
(4) To stop her from cheating.


(iv) What was the most difficult test of her ability?
(1) To read through glass, blindfolded
(2) To identify the colour and shape of light on a screen while
securely blindfolded
(3) To carry out tasks with someone pressing on her eyeballs
(4) To work from behind a screen, blindfolded and with a card
round her neck.
(b) State whether the following statements are true or false. (8 × 1 = 8)
(i) The men in Samoa were not quite blind.
(ii) Jules Romain found a lot of blind people who could see with their
noses and ears.
(iii) The Italian girl enjoyed it when the light was shone on her ear.
(iv) A girl called Virginia could read newsprint even when she was
blindfolded.
(v) Rosa Kuleshova lives on a mountain peak.
(vi) Her family taught her everything about seeing with her fingers.
(vii) Shaefer found that temperature did not affect her ability to
differentiate between colours.
(viii) Her ability to read with her fingers did not depend on the feel of the
print.
(c) Choose the option that best represents the meaning of the word as used
in the passage. (4 × 1 = 4)
(i) distinguish
(1) differentiate
(2) discriminate
(3) revere
(4) standout
(ii) celebrity
(1) rejoice
(2) famous person
(3) commemorate
(4) criminal
(iii) convincing
(1) accepting
(2) disagreeing
(3) persuasive
(4) aggressive


(iv) phenomenon
(1) occurrence
(2) surprise
(3) theory
(4) practice
12. Rewrite the jumbled sentences in sequential order so that they follow one
another in a logical and coherent manner. Choose either set (a) or set (b). (16)
(a) (i) Between 1482 and 1499, he was employed in the service of the
Duke of Milan
(ii) His artistic bent obviously appeared at an early age for when he
was 15 he was apprenticed to the painter Verocchio.
(iii) Leonardo returned to Florence in 1499, where he painted that most
famous painting ‘The Mona Lisa’.
(iv) In 1472 he was accepted in the Painters’ Guild in Florence where he
remained until 1481.
(v) Leonardo da Vinci was born in 1452 in Vinci, a small village in
Tuscany.
(vi) His artistic achievements in Milan reached their peak with the
mural ‘The Last Supper’ completed in 1497.
(vii) He was the illegitimate son of a Florentine lawyer and property
owner.
(viii) After a few years again in Milan and then in Rome he settled in
France in 1516, at Cloux near Amboise where he died three years
later.
Or
(b) (i) Yet the difficulties of working in this extremely cold region will be
great, and the costs may be so high that no company will undertake
the work.
(ii) There are four main areas of the world where deposits of oil appear.
(iii) If progress in using atomic power to drive machines is fast enough,
it is possible that oil-driven engines may give place to the new kind
of engine.
(iv) Another is the area between North and South America, and the
third, between Asia and Australia, includes the islands of Sumatra,
Borneo and Java.
(v) In that case, the demand for oil will fall, the oil flelds will gradually
disappear and the deposits at the North Pole may rest where they
are forever.


(vi) The first is that of the Middle East, and includes the regions near
the Caspian Sea, the Black Sea, the Red Sea and the Persian Gulf
(vii) When all the present oil-fields are exhausted, it is possible that this
cold region may become the scene of oil activity.
(viii) The fourth area is the part near the North Pole.
13. (a) Write a set of eight recommendations for students to make optimal use of
the library facilities in the college. (16)
Or
(b) Write a set of eight recommendations for the maintenance of the
electrical equipment in your department. (16)
14. (a) Write a letter to the editor of a newspaper about the miseries caused by
the recent power cuts in your area. (16)
Or
(b) As the President of the Students’ Union, write a letter to the Principal of
your college inviting him to the inauguration of the Enviro Club. Give
details of the activities of the club and of the timing and venue of the
function organized. (16)
15. Write two paragraphs of 150 words each (total 300 words) on any one of the
following topics. (16)
(a) The evolution of Communication technology from ancient to modem
times.
Or
(b) The ways to conserve and optimize the use of available fossil fuels.

HS2161 TECHNICAL ENGLISH – II Anna university previous year question paper for second semester BE students

B.E./B.Tech. DEGREE EXAMINATION, MAY/JUNE 2009.

Second Semester

Civil Engineering

HS 2161 — TECHNICAL ENGLISH – II

(Common to all branches of B.E./B.Tech.)

(Regulation 2008)

Time : Three hours Maximum : 100 marks

Answer ALL questions.

PART A — (10 × 2 = 20 marks)

1. Match the words in column A with their meanings in column B : (4 × 2
1 = 2)
A B
(a) nutrition (i) organism able to live both
on land and in water
(b) indispensable (ii) part for whole
(c) amphibian (iii) necessary
(d) holistic (iv) nourishment
(v) seeing as a whole
2. Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions : (4 × 2
1 = 2)
Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II ––––––––––––– Jaipur was passionately
interested ––––––––––––– mathematics. He sought to create a gigantic
observatory that was more accurate and permanent than the brass
instruments ––––––––––––– his day. He constructed five astronomical
observatories ––––––––––––– India.
3. Write purpose statements for TWO of the following : (2 × 1 = 2)
(a) Refrigerator
(b) Washing machine
(c) Constructing a by-pass road.
4. Use TWO of the following words in sentences of your own and show the
difference in stress shift : (2 × 1 = 2)
(a) Object
(b) Conduct
(c) Rebel.
5. Fill in the blanks with suitable forms of words given : (8 × 4
1 = 2)
Noun Adjective Person concerned
(a) science
(b) industrial
(c) mathematician
(d) electricity
6. Give the numerical expressions for the following : (4 × 2
1 = 2)
e.g. a bottle with a capacity of 10 liters — a ten-liter capacity bottle
(a) A budget estimate of 5 lakhs
(b) A project for 3 years
(c) A motor bike of 100 kilograms
(d) A journey of 2500 kilometers.
7. Rewrite the following in reported speech : (1 × 2 = 2)
The officer said, “We have to complete the task today.”
8. Give an extended definition of cell phone in four sentences : (4 × 2
1 = 2)
9. Supply the appropriate prefix for the following words to match their
meanings : (4 × 2
1 = 2)
(a) ––––––––––––– zero: less than zero.
(b) ––––––––––––– sonic: having a speed greater than that of sound.
(c) ––––––––––––– tension: abnormally high blood pressure.
(d) ––––––––––––– red: having a wave length just below the red end of the
spectrum.
10. Give four instructions to withdraw money from an ATM.

PART B — (5 × 16 = 80 marks)

11. Read the following passage and answer the questions given at the end :
Learning is a process that every single human being undergoes. It is not just a
yearly or even monthly process, but a day-to-day one as well. We observe
people around us-how they speak and act. In learning about others, we learn
about ourselves in the bargain, and also how it is best to interact with other
people. We learn the true meaning of terms such as integrity, kindness,
sincerity, dedication, love, acceptance, appreciation, humility and
encouragement only from honest actions. Not just from words.
As students, we expect to learn these life lessons on campus — both within and
outside the classroom. Students play such an instrumental role in influencing
and educating fellow students. Sadly, it is very difficult to find students true to
their beliefs, firm in the stands they take and confident of their values. Many
take the easy way out, rather than being whom they truly are, which is not as
easy as it sounds. They slide into the easiest getaways camouflaged in the form
of a group of close friends.
Yet why do these students feel such a sense of loneliness? Why is it that even
though they appear to have things figured out, they are all still so alone? All
that I choose to boldly say is that if being different means that you stand alone,
then do not be afraid to be the only one brave enough to be the person everyone
is secretly wishing that he/she was.
The real dilemma in our educational system is that many students are afraid
to be who they really are. They have been taught by people around them that it
is not acceptable to laugh at things that other people do not think are funny,
that it is not proper for them to think differently from their parents and most
importantly, that it is not right to voice your own opinion.
Sooner or later, you will look upon yourself wondering how much you have
accomplished in life. However successful you may become, it is only the
satisfaction of embracing what really makes ‘‘you’’ and appreciating what you
really feel, that will make you genuinely happy. That is education at its best.


(a) Choose the correct answer : (5 × 1 = 5)
(i) What do we gain by learning about others?
(1) We learn about the environment
(2) We learn about the world
(3) We learn about our true self
(4) We do not learn much.
(ii) What helps us to understand the meaning of kindness?
(1) Dishonest actions (2) Sincere actions
(3) Serious actions (4) Daring actions.
(iii) Most students suffer a sense of loneliness because
(1) They do not study well
(2) They do not have enough friends
(3) They do not get good education
(4) They are afraid of themselves.
(iv) What is the best education, according to the author?
(1) That which helps you to get a job
(2) That which helps you to earn a lot of money
(3) That which makes you understand your true self
(4) That which makes you satisfied.
(v) Who could be the author of the passage?
(1) A student (2) A parent
(3) A teacher (4) A spiritual leader.
(b) Mention whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE :
(6 × 1 = 6)
(i) Learning is common to all human beings.
(ii) We do not learn the meaning of life from words alone.
(iii) Students cannot educate other students.
(iv) It is simple to find out who we really are.
(v) To be different means to dress strangely.
(vi) Most of our students are not courageous.


(c) Choose the definition which best suits the given words as they are used
in the text : (5 × 1 = 5)
(i) Instrumental
(1) musical (2) mechanical
(3) interesting (4) important.
(ii) Slide
(1) Unchanged (2) Fall into
(3) Changed gradually (4) Rise up.
(iii) Camouflaged
(1) Comforted (2) Decorated
(3) Controlled (4) Disguised.
(iv) Dilemma
(1) Advantage (2) Problem
(3) Solution (4) Action.
(v) Figured out
(1) Understood (2) Appreciated
(3) Discovered (4) Imagined.
12. Write two coherent paragraphs on ONE of the following : (1 × 16 = 16)
(a) The problems and benefits of technology.
Or
(b) The best ways of protecting the environment.
13. (a) Write a letter of job application for the post of General Manager to the
Managing Director of a leading company. Add a suitable rèsumè to your
letter. (1 × 16 = 16)
Or
(b) Suppose you are the Collector of a district. The Secretary of a College
Student Union has invited you as the chief guest for the annual students
function. Write a letter of acceptance to the secretary. Also send your
curriculum vitae along with the letter for the purpose of introducing the
chief guest at the time of the function. (1 × 16 = 16)


14. Write a set of eight recommendations for ONE of the following (1 × 16 = 16)
(a) To maintain vehicles in good condition.
Or
(b) To reduce unemployment problem.
15. Rearrange ONE set of the following jumbled sentences into a coherent
paragraph : (1 × 16 =16)
(a) (i) Secondly, we can heat the steel above a certain critical
temperature, and then allow it to cool at different rates.
(ii) We can alter the characteristics of steel in various ways.
(iii) Annealing has a second advantage.
(iv) In the process known as annealing, we heat the steel above the
critical temperature and permit it to cool very slowly.
(v) This causes the metal to become softer than before, and much
easier to machine.
(vi) At this critical temperature, changes begin to take place on the
molecular structures of the metal.
(vii) It helps to relieve any internal stresses, which exist in the metal.
(viii) In the first place, steel, which contains very little carbon, will be
milder than steel, which contains a higher percentage of carbon.
Or
(b) (i) Engineering is the use of scientific principles to achieve a planned
result.
(ii) The distinctions between science, engineering, and technology are
not always clear.
(iii) Generally, science is the reasoned investigation or study of nature
aimed at discovering enduring relationships among elements of the
world.
(iv) In this sense, scientists and engineers may both be considered
technologists, but scientists less so.
(v) This knowledge then may be used by engineers to create artifacts,
such as semiconductors, computers, and other forms of advanced
technology.


(vi) However, technology broadly involves the uses and application of
knowledge both formally and informally, to achieve some practical
result.
(vii) It generally employs formal techniques, i.e., some set of established
rules of procedure such as the scientific method.
(viii) For example, science might study the flow of electrons in electrical
conductors.